1 João 3
Thomas Constable · Citado em PreceptAustin
1 João 3:6
Constable comments "If abiding in God equals being a Christian, this verse appears to contradict what John wrote in 1:8 and 10 (Ed: but see Hiebert's and Stott's comments below). There he said that Christians sin (cf. 2a:1; 15, 29; 3:12, 18; 5:16, 21). It also seems to contradict personal experience since genuine Christians do indeed sin." Yes, Christians do sin as all believers know too well! But a Christian does not going on sinning (sin is in the present tense). I realize that some like Grant Richison (his commentaries are also well-done and are quoted on this website) say the present tense does not speak of habitual action in this verse (Zane Hodges [see his unusual teachings] takes a similar position), but he has to say that in order to make the the first clause speak of fellowship of the believer rather than identity as a believer! (For more detail see Harris' discussion on the present tense in this passage) THOUGHT - Beloved, do not be deceived! (1Jn 3:7+) If the bent of one's life is continually toward sinning, how can one even remotely claim to be a follower of Christ? How can one claim to have the indwelling Holy Spirit if the entire tenor of their life continually gravitates toward unholiness? This is a dangerous teaching and one to which our Lord Jesus surely warned in the Sermon on the Mount, declaring to those who "professed" to know Him (They said "Lord, Lord," etc - Mt 7:21-22+) "I never (at any time) knew you (speaks of intimacy, of union). Depart (present imperative) from Me, (Why? What was Jesus' criterion?). You who practice (present tense - the same tense as sin in 1Jn 3:6) lawlessness (which John calls sin in 1Jn 3:5+)." (Mt 7:23+). Now we are sure that cannot mean that he does not sin at all, but it means that sins not habitually, he sins not designedly, he sins not finally, so as to perish. I love C H Spurgeon's approach of letting the plain sense of the text speak plainly! - This plain, simple verse, has been twisted by some who believe in the doctrine of perfection, and they have made it declare that it is possible for some to abide in Christ, and therefore not to sin. But you will remark that it does not say, that some that abide in Christ do not sin; but it says that none who abide in Christ sin. "Whosoever abides in Him does not sin." Therefore this passage is not to be applied to a few who attain to what is called by our Arminian friends the fourth degree—perfection; but it appertains to all believers; and of every soul in Christ it may be said, that he does not sin. In reading the Bible, we read it simply as we would read another book. We ought not to read it as a preacher his text, with the intention of making something out of every word; but we should read it as we find it written: "Whosoever abides in Christ does not sin." Now we are sure that cannot mean that he does not sin at all, but it means that sins not habitually, he sins not designedly, he sins not finally, so as to perish. The Bible often calls a man righteous; but that does not mean that he is perfectly righteous. It calls a man a sinner, but it does not imply that he may not have done some good deeds in his life; it means that that is the man's general character. So with the man who abides in Christ: his general character is not that he is a sinner, but that he is a saint—he sins not openly and willfully before men. In his own heart, he has much to confess, but his life before his fellow creatures is such a one that it can be said of him: "Whosoever abides in Him does not sin; but whosoever sins [the sins of this world. in which the multitude indulge] hath not seen him, neither known him." (Spurgeon Expositions and Sermons on 1 John) Hiebert (who is an excellent expositor with great expertise in the original Greek) explains that "Everyone in the first group (Ed: "No one who abides in Him sins") is characterized by his abiding relationship with Christ: “Whosoever abides in Him sins not” (literally, “every one in Him abiding not is sinning”). The position of “in Him” (en autō) between the article and the present participle marks his ongoing relationship with Christ as an essential feature of his identity. He continually “abides” in Christ as the true sphere of his life, dwelling in Him in Whom there is no sin. This relationship of remaining “in Him” implies obedience to Him (Jn 15:10) rather than following his own will. Of such a one John asserts that he “sins not” (ouch hamartanei), does not continue in willful, habitual sin. John has already indicated that the believer cannot claim never to commit an act of sin (1Jn 1:8–9+; 1Jn 2:1+). Sin may enter his experience as an exception which calls for immediate confession and cleansing; he is not at liberty to make occasional excursions into sin but should continually seek to avoid any lapse into sin. John’s apparently contradictory statements concerning sin and the believer reflect that inner tension which Paul discusses in Romans 7:1-25+. (1 John 2:29-3:12 Online) John Stott - The logical deduction follows (the truth in 1Jn 3:5+). If the eternal nature of the Son of God is sinless, and if the purpose of His historical appearing was to remove sin, then no-one who lives in Him (Ed: "abides in Him") keeps on sinning, while, on the other hand (Ed: Note how Stott also sees a contrast), no-one who continues to sin has either seen Him or known Him. It is typical of John’s method that he should drive the truth home by this double hammer-blow about sinning and not sinning. (borrow 1-3 John MacArthur New Testament Commentary) (Bolding added for emphasis). John does not teach that believers do not sin, but is speaking of a character, a habit Kenneth Wuest who is well known for his expert writings on the Greek comments that "The words abides and sins are used here to designate a certain class of individual. Character is shown by one’s habitual actions, not the extraordinary ones. The tense of the verbs is present, the kind of action, continuous, habitual. Thus, “every one who habitually is abiding in Him,” is a saved person, and, “every one who habitually is sinning,” an unsaved person. A Christian as a habit of life is abiding in fellowship with the Lord Jesus. Sin may at times enter his life. But sin is the exception, not the rule. The unsaved person as a habit of life sins continually. “Sins” is present tense, continuous action being indicated. The person who is abiding in Christ is not habitually sinning. The child of God as a habit of life, does righteousness, and sin is not a habit with him. John is not teaching sinless perfection here.
1 João 3:15
Constable - "Every one" includes Christians. Murder is the ultimate outward expression of hatred (cf. Mt 5:21-22). The key to the apparently inconsistent statement that concludes this verse is the words "abiding in him." John evidently meant that no Christian whose eternal life (i.e., Jesus Christ; 1Jn 1:2) has control of him, who is walking in fellowship with God, will commit murder. Obviously some believers have committed murder, but they are non-abiding believers. (ED: JOHN IS NOT SPEAKING OF COMMITTING LITERAL MURDER WHICH SOME GENUINE BELIEVERS HAVE DONE. HE IS SPEAKING OF A LIFESTYLE OF CONTINUAL HATRED WHICH IS TANTAMOUNT TO COMMITTING MURDER. ALL CHRISTIANS HAVE SURELY BEEN GUILTY OF HATRED, BUT THAT HATRED WAS NOT LIFELONG!) FOR MUCH MORE DISCUSSION FROM A NUMBER OF MINISTRIES SEE "CARNAL CHRISTIAN" UNDER COMMENTARY ON 1 CORINTHIANS 3. Those who do not interpret everyone as a true believer clearly have a different interpretation of the meaning of eternal life abiding in him, specifically they see these individuals as not regenerate, not born again. They do not see this everyone as merely as someone who is out of fellowship with God and other believers. I personally think the immediate context of 1Jn 3:14b (and John's overall purpose in 1Jn 5:13+) favors the interpretation that the everyone in this verse is not a genuine Christ possessing believer but a professing believer. You might ask well what about the term "brother"? Doesn't that help identify everyone as a believer? That is not necessarily true because while John does indeed use brother to refer to believers, there are passages in the NT where brother is clearly not a believer (e.g., see James 2:15-16+) Furthermore, if the everyone is a professing believer, then brother could still refer to a true believer, but of course they would not in the same spiritual "family." I think the correct interpretation of 1Jn 3:15 is of vital importance! Why? If there is a person who is professing to be a Christian and yet continually, unremittingly, unrepentantly harboring hatred in their heart to anyone (believer or non-believer), then that person needs to do a serious self-examination (2Cor 13:5) if John is describing an unbeliever. On the other hand, if John is just describing a believer out of fellowship with God and other believers (but still saved), then this person could spend the rest of their life in hatred and be convinced they are still a believer and would be headed to heaven when they die. So what is at stake with the correct interpretation? I would submit it is one's eternal destiny - heaven or hell! Or as John