Miquéias 5
Charles Spurgeon · Citado em PreceptAustin
Miquéias 5
Spurgeon - Morning and Evening The Lord Jesus had goings forth for his people as their representative before the throne, long before they appeared upon the stage of time. It was “from everlasting” that he signed the compact with his Father, that he would pay blood for blood, suffering for suffering, agony for agony, and death for death, in the behalf of his people; it was “from everlasting” that he gave himself up without a murmuring word. That from the crown of his head to the sole of his foot he might sweat great drops of blood, that he might be spit upon, pierced, mocked, rent asunder, and crushed beneath the pains of death. His goings forth as our Surety were from everlasting. Pause, my soul, and wonder! Thou hast goings forth in the person of Jesus “from everlasting.” Not only when thou wast born into the world did Christ love thee, but his delights were with the sons of men before there were any sons of men. Often did he think of them; from everlasting to everlasting he had set his affection upon them. What! my soul, has he been so long about thy salvation, and will not he accomplish it? Has he from everlasting been going forth to save me, and will he lose me now? What! Has he carried me in his hand, as his precious jewel, and will he now let me slip from between his fingers? Did he choose me before the mountains were brought forth, or the channels of the deep were digged, and will he reject me now? Impossible! I am sure he would not have loved me so long if he had not been a changeless Lover. If he could grow weary of me, he would have been tired of me long before now. If he had not loved me with a love as deep as hell, and as strong as death, he would have turned from me long ago. Oh, joy above all joys, to know that I am his everlasting and inalienable inheritance, given to him by his Father or ever the earth was! Everlasting love shall be the pillow for my head this night. Micah 5:3 - Therefore He will give them up until the time when she who is in labor has borne a child. Then the remainder of His brethren will return to the sons of Israel. Therefore Mic 7:13; Hosea 2:9,14 Give Mic 6:14; 1Kings 14:16; 2 Chronicles 30:7; Hosea 11:8 she Mic 4:10; Isaiah 66:7,8; Matthew 1:21; Revelation 12:1,2 then Mic 4:7; Isaiah 10:20,21; 11:11; Jeremiah 31:1,7-9; Romans 9:27,28; 11:4-6 His brethren Matthew 12:50; 25:40; Romans 8:29; Hebrews 1:11,12 Micah Resources - Multiple Sermons and Commentaries THE REMNANT WILL RETURN Note: This is a difficult verse from an eschatological perspective and as discussed below some writers favor one fulfillment at the Second Coming while others favor two fulfillments, one at the First Coming and then at the Second Coming. Despite the differences of opinion on the interpretation of this prophecy we do well to remember Warren Wiersbe's words - "Whenever a prophet foretold the future, it was to awaken the people to their responsibilities in the present. Bible prophecy isn’t entertainment for the curious; it’s encouragement for the serious." Therefore (term of conclusion) He will give them up until (expression of time) the time when she who is in labor has borne a child. - Why the "therefore?" What is Micah concluding? Barker explains that "because God has designed to punish his people before delivering them and because the Deliverer is to arise from the little town of Bethlehem, not the great city of Jerusalem—God will abandon Israel (Judah) by handing them over to their enemies. That condition will last until the promised Ruler is born and begins His rule." (Editorial Note: The Ruler has been born but He has not yet begun His rule over ALL His enemies as prophesied by the Apostle John in Rev 11:15-17-explanatory note) (Logos Link) The first three questions offer relatively straightforward answers: Who is He? In context, the He is the Messiah (Jehovah). Who is them? In context, this is Israel, the Jewish people. What does He will give them up signify? It means that the Jews will be subject to Gentile dominion. The Times of the Gentiles (Lk 21:24+) began with Judah's defeat by the Gentile power Babylon in 586 BC. Israel has continually been under the authority of the Gentiles and this will only be relieved at the Second Coming of Messiah (cf Rev 11:2+ = . John MacArthur agrees that give them up is "A reference to the interval between Messiah’s rejection at His First Advent and His Second Advent, during the times of the Gentiles when Israel rejects Christ and is under the domination of enemies. Regathering of the “remainder of His brethren” did not occur at the First Advent but is slated for the Second Advent (cf. Isa 10:20–22; 11:11–16). ESV Study Bible offers a questionable interpretation that this was fulfilled at the First Coming, but that does not fit with either the historical context or the Scriptural context. "Israel’s loss of king and subjection to enemies will prevail until the birth of the Lord’s ruler." (Bolding added by me) First note that prevail which is used in the ESV comment is a verb that means to overcome, to gain the victory, to gain predominant influence. Then note the word until in simple terms means something will happen up to a point in time and then won't happen. The ESV note would suggest that when the Lord's ruler is born, the subjection to enemies will no longer prevail. This comment begs a simple question from all good Bereans [Acts 17:11+) When Messiah was born, was Israel free of subjection to Roman rule? What happened to Jerusalem in 70 AD, more than 50 years after the birth of the Messiah? What has happened to Israel for the last 2000 years? Israel's enemies have repeatedly prevailed over them! And so historical facts do not support the ESV comment. Who is she? And what time does word until demarcate? The "reflex" explanation is that surely this is the Virgin Mary and a number of evangelical commentaries (ESV Study Bible, KJV Study Bible, Believer's Study Bible = W A Criswell, Defender's Study Bible = Henry Morris, Wycliffe Bible Commentary) do indeed feel that the pronoun she refers to Mary. But does Mary fit with the context? Note that the implication of the word "until" (see importance of expressions of time) is that Israel will be given up to the Gentiles until the time she has borne a child, but not after that birth. Clearly Israel remained under Gentile rule after Mary bore the Messiah (e.g., Rome destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple in 70AD-See the Siege of Jerusalem) . In fact even today Temple Mount remains under Gentile (Muslim) control! Some writers favor one fulfillment of this prophecy: Walter Kaiser - From the Babylonian Exile to the present day, God has abandoned Israel and will continue to do so until the one in labor has given birth." Therefore, it seems most reasonable to interpret she not as Mary, but as Israel (personified as a woman, as she clearly is in Rev 12:1-4, 5, 6-note) and her labor as not referring to Mary's labor, but to the nation of Israel's labor so to speak. Thomas
Miquéias 5
Spurgeon says "Before there was any Abraham, there was this glorious Christ of ours existing as the Eternal I AM, in all the infinity of his glory." (John 8 - Spurgeon Exposition) Long ago (06924) (קֵדְמָה) (qedem) is used to describe Elohim in Dt 33:27 ("the Eternal God"). Eternity (05969) See "olam" Wiseman - The Hebrew (‘ōlām), used in connection with either the created order or God himself, can mean ‘from eternity on’ (cf. Ps 25:6; 90:2). It can also designate ‘ancient times’ within history, i.e. the distant past. If the reference to Bethlehem aims to evoke the memory of Jesse and David, then the latter meaning fits this context best. Arnold Fruchtenbaum comments that "The Hebrew words for “from long ago, from the days of eternity” are the strongest Hebrew words ever used for eternity past. They are used of God the Father in Psalm 90:2. What is true of God the Father is also said to be true of this One who is to be born in Bethlehem. These words are also used in Proverbs 8:22–23 (the voice of Wisdom speaking)." Kaiser - When the Hebrew word for “everlasting,” olam, is used in connection with God, it can only mean “from eternity on” (cf. Ps 25:6; 90:2). That can be its only meaning here if the Ruler is none other than the Son of God, the Messiah. (See also B B Warfield's The Divine Messiah in the Old Testament) Keil & Delitzsch - The announcement of the origin of this Ruler as being before all worlds unquestionably presupposes His divine nature; but this thought was not strange to the prophetic mind in Micah's time, but is expressed without ambiguity by Isaiah, when he gives the Messiah the Name of “the Mighty God” (Isaiah 9:6-note) (Note)